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It also brings up an interesting approach to defining "disparity of force." If a physical assault is one-on-one and neither party has a major physical advantage, there might not be a disparity. But what if there are 5 people beating on 1? Taken individually, they might not present a disparity, but they do when taken all together as a group. Since a disparity can justify using deadly force, would that be a defense against prosecution for shooting 1 of them (assuming the rest would flee)? Which one? Does it matter? This could be a tangled scenario to wrestle with in court.