Legally, there is no difference between detaining someone and arresting them for citizens. The difference for cops is a very gray area and was created by the Supreme Court in the case of Terry v. Ohio. Prior to this point, and even subsequently in some cases, SCOTUS said an arrest was any time a person was not free to leave. The latest decision to use this was last year os so when they ruled the passenger in a car the police stop was legally under arrest since no reasonable person would feel free to leave at that point. This was important because an arrest requires probable cause and this case actually allows a passenger to challenge the PC for the car stop.Drewthetexan wrote:What's the difference between "citizen's arrest", detaining someone, or just using force to coerce someone not to leave, i.e. holding them at gunpoint and hoping they don't run off? Are these semantics? Is there a legal difference between physically restraining someone and holding them at gunpoint?
In Terry, the SCOTUS said a cop could legally detain someone for investigatory purposes if they were acting suspiciously and the officer could properly explain why he thought the person was committing a crime. This has really confused things for cops on what is an arrest and what is a detention. Since citizens other than officers cannot investigate (yet), they do not (yet) have the power to detain. Thus, any time you stop the person from leaving, you have performed a citizen's arrest if done legally. If not done legally, you have committed a crime of unlawful restraint or some form of kidnapping.
This is another gray area that has not yet been defined by the courts. In general, your legal use of force is not considered provocation because it is a legal response to the bg's actions. But, if you are justified in using force, though not deadly force, and it is not enough to stop the problem, can you escalate? This is not clear in the law. If I am justified in using force and I draw a weapon, but the bg runs away, can i shoot him? Not the way I read the law. But if we turn it around and he comes at me (a la Joe Horn), I am now legally allowed to shoot. My theory is that a reasonable person would feel the bg was about to kill or injure me if he doesn't feel intimidated by my weapon and attacks. That would then justify the deadly force on its own.And then, if you are justified in using force, but not deadly force, in a situation - does the use of force constitute provocation if it causes the bg to escalate to the point where you have to use deadly force in self defense?
But, being in this vague area, only the jury and appeals courts can say for sure. I can say a cop cannot shoot in those cases, but the Garner decision does not apply to citizens (it was based on 4th Amendment issues which can only restrict the government).