I agree that the expression "reasonable fear" is not a substitute for knowledge of the statute.Xander wrote:Yes, but in order for "reasonable fear" to to be positively determined to exist within a given context, we must fall back to a definition of "reasonable fear" that can be laid out from, and constrained by the law.frankie_the_yankee wrote: a "reasonable fear" itself is *not* justification for deadly force, ..........
Yes, "itself". To which I say, "context, context, context."
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Xander wrote: So, if you don't understand the conditions set forth by the law, there is no way to specifically differentiate between "reasonable" and "unreasonable" fear. So, at that point, it becomes redundant and unnecessary, and until that point it isn't adequately defined and dangerous.
Knowledge of the statute is one element of proper context.