mr.72 wrote: Well this debate hinges on the presumption that "threat to cause death or serious bodily injury by the production of a weapon..." is defined as "force" or "threat of force", and not "deadly force".
§ 9.04. THREATS AS JUSTIFIABLE FORCE. The threat of
force is justified when the use of force is justified by this
chapter. For purposes of this section, a threat to cause death or
serious bodily injury by the production of a weapon or otherwise * , as
long as the actor's purpose is limited to creating an apprehension
that he will use deadly force if necessary, does not constitute the
use of deadly force.
*They could have just said "A threat of Deadly Force" rather than that whole sentence.
mr.72 wrote:However I can find nowhere in these sub-sections where it is clearly defined. We simply have the definition that the "threat to cause death..." does not constitute the use of deadly force, without any definition of what it does actually constitute. We are presuming it constitutes "FORCE" as someone else mentioned, but it is nowhere clearly defined as such that I can find.
Also reasonably the "threat to cause death..." might lead to a situation that results in justification for the use of deadly force, such as in the baseball bat to the car idea. If you had not presented the weapon, then perhaps the slugger would not have come at you with the bat.
I think this is a gray area at best.
I'm not sure I know what definition you're looking for, but here goes.
if you can use Force, which physical stuff, they laying of hands, and so forth, THEN you can use the THREAT of FORCE.
If you can use Force, you MAY or MAY NOT be able to use DEADLY FORCE. You can use the THREAT of DEADLY FORCE
only if it is limited to just being a threat.
what is a threat? anything where you give that person the idea that you are going to do what you are saying you're going to do.
If it does not constitute Deadly Force, then it must be simple Force.
in my example, the guy with the bat, when faced with the lawful threat of DF, he could of just put his bat down.
whereas, if the actor had gone out, unarmed, the crook would have seen no threat, and could have had his way with the "victim."
that make any sense? If I'm not addressing your question properly, lemmeh know.