I'm confused. Didn't the SCOTUS rule that the 2A applied primarily to military style weapons? Could it be argued that the definition " A semiautomatic rifle or shotgun originally designed for military or law enforcement use, or a firearm based on the design of such a firearm, that is not particularly suitable for sporting purposes, as determined by the Attorney General." could easily be applied to almost any rifle available these days?
Looks to me like an out-and-out assault on private firearms ownership
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