Is CHL the only reason for the 51% distinction?

CHL discussions that do not fit into more specific topics

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atxgun
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Is CHL the only reason for the 51% distinction?

#1

Post by atxgun »

Are there other areas of the law that take into account whether or not an establishment makes 51%+ of their revenue from alcohol sales or does that metric solely exist b/c of the CHL laws?

tx.agg.96
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Re: Is CHL the only reason for the 51% distinction?

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Post by tx.agg.96 »

i thought some cities use it for their no smoking ordinances. Allowing for smoking in 51% establishments.

Locksmith
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Re: Is CHL the only reason for the 51% distinction?

#3

Post by Locksmith »

No longer valid
Last edited by Locksmith on Thu Jul 08, 2010 4:15 am, edited 1 time in total.

bayouhazard
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Re: Is CHL the only reason for the 51% distinction?

#4

Post by bayouhazard »

Locksmith wrote:All alcoholic beverage retailers must post one of two firearms signs.
Is that a yes or a no? :headscratch
atxgun wrote:Are there other areas of the law that take into account whether or not an establishment makes 51%+ of their revenue from alcohol sales or does that metric solely exist b/c of the CHL laws?
If "food service is the primary business being operated on the premises" they can get a Food and Beverage Certificate. I believe that's the least expensive (non temporary) certificate/permit to sell alcohol for on premises consumption in Texas, so there's a financial incentive to get a FB certificate if they get most of their income from food. However, if they have other sources of income, it's possible to not be 51% and not qualify for a Food and Beverage Certificate.

The only place I see "51 percent" in the alcoholic beverage code was added by the CHL law, but perhaps srothstein can provide a more definitive answer.
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jimlongley
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Re: Is CHL the only reason for the 51% distinction?

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Post by jimlongley »

bayouhazard wrote:Is that a yes or a no? :headscratch
Yes. :evil2: :biggrinjester: :evil2:

Sorry, just had to do that.
Real gun control, carrying 24/7/365
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