I would imagine that criminal and tort law use different "common" definitions of "injury", since one can be tortiously "injured" without any physical component. Financially, emotionally, reputation-wise...Charles L. Cotton wrote:Yep, you're absolutely right; if there is no statutory definition, then we use the common meaning and a dictionary definition is often a good source. However, there is also a common usage in the law with some terms and "injury" happens to be one. This is probably due to the nature of the entire concept of "injury" both in civil and criminal law.
Ain't law grand?
Kevin