It appears this discussion revolves around two questions:flintknapper wrote:Kyle Brown wrote:Let me start by saying that I am not trying to be argumentative...but...well, for instance, you state that it is a "simple (lawful) fact" that a person may only use the same amount of force as that being used against them (unless you are an LE). Again, not trying to be argumentative, but exactly where did you read this...can you point me to a statute???flintknapper wrote:Kyle Brown wrote:§ 9.04. THREATS AS JUSTIFIABLE FORCE. The threat of
force is justified when the use of force is justified by this
chapter. For purposes of this section, a threat to cause death or
serious bodily injury by the production of a weapon or otherwise, as
long as the actor's purpose is limited to creating an apprehension
that he will use deadly force if necessary, does not constitute the
use of deadly force.
Acts 1973, 63rd Leg., p. 883, ch. 399, § 1, eff. Jan. 1, 1974.
Amended by Acts 1993, 73rd Leg., ch. 900, § 1.01, eff. Sept. 1,
1994.
After reading that you cannot legally pull that "hog leg" just because you are about to take a "butt whipping" (after someone has slapped you across the face with an open hand), I thought it was time to revisit 9.04.
Now, I am not saying that all slaps across the face justify the production of a weapon under 9.04. Likewise, I don't believe that it is correct to state/imply the production of a weapon is not justified if you are about to take a butt whipping after someone has slapped you across the face with an open hand.
I don't know what else to tell you except... "give it a whirl" and good luck.
Simple (lawful) fact: In defense of yourself, you may only use the same amount of force as that being used against you (unless you are LE).
By "butt whipping", I'm referring to your common everyday fight between two unskilled people. Pushing, shoving, slapping, even striking with a closed fist (to a limited degree) is not likely to result in serious bodily injury or death. There are exceptions of course , and that is why the law allows for the use/threat of deadly force when there exists "disparity" of force.
Flint.
You then add that the law allows for the use/threat of deadly force when there exists "disparity" of force. Again, is this your interpretation of 9.04???...or...can you direct us to a statute???
IF you are right, then I have been mislead by those who are paid to know.
Kyle,
I do not regard your reply as argumentative. Even if it were, that is your privilege. I have never experienced anything other than civil discussions on this site. There is no requirement for us to agree on everything said here.
My post/position is not derived from an interpretation of PC 9.04, nor does it have a specific chapter devoted to it. It comes from the wording in PC 9.31. SELF DEFENSE. (a) Except as provided in Subsection (b), a person is justified in using force against another when and to the degree he reasonably believes the force is immediately necessary to protect himself against the other's use or attempted use of unlawful force.
The key words here are (reasonably, necessary, and unlawful). A topical reading of this chapter could lead one to believe that all that is necessary is to believe that you were in danger. In fact, what you must prove...is that your conduct was "reasonable". Additionally, "unlawful force" is a term that applies both ways.
Where is the chapter on unlawful force, where are we told conclusively what "reasonable" is. These are principles that will be examined as component parts of a "total" situation. Likewise, "disparity of force" and "proportionate force" are principles subject to the scrutiny of case law and the defense. This is where I get it from, and my purpose for bringing it up in the first place.
Should your case go to court
1. Wheather a person justified in the use of force is also justified in the threat of deadly force by and through the production of a weapon per TPC 9.04.
I say absolutely, he is. I say "absolutely" because that is the exact requirement per the statute.
2. Wheather a person is justified in the use of force after he has been slapped in the face with an open hand.
I say more than likely, but will admit that in some cases such action does not justify the use of force.
But clearly (pun intended...lol), if a person is "about to take a butt whipping" then obviously the person has the right to defend himself. If the person has the right to defend himself (per TPC 9.31), then the person has the right to threaten to use deadly force by and through the production of a weapon per TPC 9.04