Page 1 of 1
Is CHL the only reason for the 51% distinction?
Posted: Sat Jan 10, 2009 6:56 pm
by atxgun
Are there other areas of the law that take into account whether or not an establishment makes 51%+ of their revenue from alcohol sales or does that metric solely exist b/c of the CHL laws?
Re: Is CHL the only reason for the 51% distinction?
Posted: Sat Jan 10, 2009 8:09 pm
by tx.agg.96
i thought some cities use it for their no smoking ordinances. Allowing for smoking in 51% establishments.
Re: Is CHL the only reason for the 51% distinction?
Posted: Sat Jan 10, 2009 8:29 pm
by Locksmith
No longer valid
Re: Is CHL the only reason for the 51% distinction?
Posted: Sun Jan 11, 2009 1:55 pm
by bayouhazard
Locksmith wrote:All alcoholic beverage retailers must post one of two firearms signs.
Is that a yes or a no?
atxgun wrote:Are there other areas of the law that take into account whether or not an establishment makes 51%+ of their revenue from alcohol sales or does that metric solely exist b/c of the CHL laws?
If "food service is the primary business being operated on the premises" they can get a Food and Beverage Certificate. I believe that's the least expensive (non temporary) certificate/permit to sell alcohol for on premises consumption in Texas, so there's a financial incentive to get a FB certificate if they get most of their income from food. However, if they have other sources of income, it's possible to not be 51%
and not qualify for a Food and Beverage Certificate.
The only place I see "51 percent" in the alcoholic beverage code was added by the CHL law, but perhaps srothstein can provide a more definitive answer.
Re: Is CHL the only reason for the 51% distinction?
Posted: Sun Jan 11, 2009 6:24 pm
by jimlongley
bayouhazard wrote:Is that a yes or a no?
Yes.
Sorry, just had to do that.