anygunanywhere wrote:WildBill wrote:b322da wrote:The fact that someone was in fact alarmed is not an element of the criminal offense.
Jim

Good point!
So exactly how can the determination be made that someone was carrying in a manner intended to alarm when no one is in fact alarmed by what they are doing?? That is like saying someone gets arrested for murder whan no one has been killed.
The law as it is written is plain and simply there to infringe on our 2A RKBA.
Anygunanywhere
The defendant's intention is very often an element of a criminal offense, and his intention must be proved by the prosecution beyond any reasonable doubt. If not admitted, his intention must necessarily be proved by circumstantial evidence. Criminal statutes of the several states, including Texas, are liberally sprinkled with the intention to commit a crime being a crime itself. For example, if the law has not changed recently, if one enters a habitation in Texas intending to commit a felony, with one exception, he has committed a felony of the first degree. He does not have to succeed in committing the intended felony, he only has to have the intention to do so as he enters the habitation.
Is "calculated to" any different than "intended to?" Indeed your question itself uses "intended to" rather than "calculated to." "Calculated to" is proved in exactly the same way as "intended to" would be proved, usually of necessity by circumstantial evidence.
I will not enter into a debate about the correctness of your final sentence. I will leave that to others, should there be any here on the forum who might suspect that the legislature intended instead to protect the general population from being intimidated, frightened, "alarmed," if you will, and such, which might under some circumstances lead to conflict, perhaps armed conflict, endangering the safety or the lives of the actors and others.
Jim