Nope. You're misreading the FAQ. It's an either or not an and. If it were an and, the "loss of the normal use" part would be irrelevant. As I've explained elsewhere, the "loss of the normal use" clause is a judgment call both for the officer and for the jury. If you want to roll those dice, by all means do so.Kythas wrote:I just found the following statement on the Texas DPS Concealed Handgun FAQ under the question "Can I carry a handgun when I am drinking?". Note the last line:
To me, this means the DPS requires you to pass the same .08 BAC as everyone else to determine if you're too intoxicated to be carrying your weapon, and the argument that it's up to the discretion of the officer on the scene and there's no BAC standard is incorrect. Is my thought process here wrong?According to the Texas Penal Code, it is unlawful for an individual who is intoxicated to carry a handgun. It is important to note that the Penal Code defines “intoxicated” as not having the normal use of mental or physical faculties by reason of the introduction of alcohol, a controlled substance, a drug, a dangerous drug, a combination of two or more of those substances, or any other substance in the body. Additionally, the Penal Code considers having an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or higher to constitute intoxication.
http://www.txdps.state.tx.us/administra ... hlfaqs.htm
BTW, even without a gun you don't have to blow .08 BAC to be convicted. I know this because I was a foreman on a jury that convicted a woman of DUI without ever having had introduced into evidence a BAC test. But I already told you that in the other thread. So, as someone else has already said .....

